Silliness: Chaucer Spoke Yiddish?

Like a lot of people, I know enough random words in Yiddish to embarrass myself in mixed company. One of those words is shanda—or shonda, shondah, shande, however you want to spell it. It means “shame” or “scandal.” Open up a Philip Roth novel and every other page there’s a stereotypical overbearing Jewish mother yelling at her son that he’s a shanda to the family. How dare he look at a shiksa that way! (one time that comment was made in real life, and I was the shiksa in question. Nice, huh?)
Anyway, for some reason I started to wonder if the word shanda had become an accepted English word, so I looked it up on dictionary.com. Here’s what I found:
Shonde
\Shonde\, n. [AS. sceond. Cf. Shend.] Harm; disgrace; shame. [Obs.] --Chaucer.
Chaucer?!
If you’ve read the Canterbury Tales, you’ll know that one of the stories—the Prioress’ tale—depicts Jews as bloodthirsty childkillers, and there’s very little in the text to indicate that Chaucer actually disagreed.
His feelings about Jews aside, I’m still confused as to how that word migrated into Chaucer’s Middle English vocabulary. Did Yiddish even exist in the 14th century? I was under the impression that the language coalesced from German and Hebrew; did Chaucer borrow the word from either of those languages? If he borrowed from Hebrew, how the hell did he know Hebrew? It was my understanding that after the Dark Ages, Northern Europeans did not study Greek or Hebrew until the Renaissance.
There’s no real point to this post, just thought I’d point out something odd. The English language is fun to study because it has evolved so much, picking up and dumping words from other languages. I’m glad it is not closely regulated like French or some other European languages—amputating huge chunks of vocabulary would be a shanda to the lexicon.
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